I would not be a premillennialist if Revelation 20:1-10 were not in the Bible. This is the only passage where the millennial kingdom is explicitly taught. Critics of premillennialism charge us with holding to a doctrine that is standing on the thin ice of one single passage, especially given the fact that Revelation is a highly symbolic and difficult book to interpret. My response to that charge is twofold:
1. One biblical passage is enough to establish a doctrine. I would not believe in the imputation of Adam’s sin to all his descendants if not for Romans 5:12-19. I would not believe in the future conversion of Israel to Christ if not for Romans 11:26 and the surrounding verses. Other passages speak to these issues indirectly, but these are the only ones that are explicit with respect to the doctrines that I have mentioned. The same is true for premillennialism.
2. The book of Revelation is indeed highly symbolic and difficult to interpret at many points. But it was also given to us by divine revelation for the purpose that we might understand it. Specifically, it is a book that speaks more directly to eschatology than most others, and we should seek to understand it and take seriously what it teaches.
This post will address only Revelation 20. The discussion will be more lengthy than my previous posts, but that is the only way I can do justice to the passage. In the next post I will draw in some other passages of Scripture.
Revelation 20:1-10 teaches a millennial kingdom on this earth ruled over by Christ prior to the eternal state. If you really want to follow what I am saying here, then you should have a Bible open to that passage. In this passage we have several elements that demand explanation:
- the binding of Satan for a thousand years (vv. 1-3)
- the first resurrection, namely, the resurrection of those who have been killed for their testimony to Christ as well as all those who had not worshiped the beast (vv. 4-6)
- the millennial Kingdom, during which time those who have been resurrected reign with Christ (vv. 4-6)
- differentiation between the first resurrection and the second resurrection: the first occurs at the beginning of the thousand years, and the second occurs at the end (v. 5)
- a final rebellion led by Satan at the end of the thousand years, which is quickly put down (vv. 7-10)
- Satan’s final destination: the lake of fire (v. 10)
Postmillennialists and amillennialists (hereafter POM’s and AM’s) usually argue that the binding of Satan refers to what happened to him at Christ’s first coming. Specifically, they point to verse 3, which reads, “and he [the angel, which some say is Christ himself] threw him [Satan] into the abyss, and shut it and sealed it over him, so that he would not deceive the nations any longer, until the thousand years were completed; after these things he must be released for a short time.” Since the purpose of Satan’s binding is to prevent him from deceiving the nations any longer, POM’s and AM’s argue that the thousand years refers to the present age (or, for some POM’s a future “golden age” that will gradually develop out of this present age). Prior to Christ’s first coming, Satan held the nations in darkness, but now that the gospel has gone out to all nations, he has been bound in this one respect. The nations are no longer held captive to the darkness of ignorance, for the gospel has continually spread around the world. This means that the present age is “the millennium,” and Christ is reigning over this world right now. As for the distinction between the first and second resurrections, some argue that the first resurrection refers to regeneration. Others (more plausibly) argue that the image of a first resurrection is employed to show that those who have died for their testimony to Jesus have not been defeated but reign with him in Heaven during this present age. It is not a bodily resurrection that is in view but simply a symbolic reference to the ongoing life of the dead in Christ. At the end of the thousand years (this present age, or for POM’s the golden age of the church), Satan will lead a massive rebellion. POM’s and AM’s argue that the battle of Revelation 20:7-10 is the same as the battle described in 16:13-21 and 19:11-21, namely, the battle that occurs at the end of the present age at the Second Coming of Christ. The final judgment and the eternal state follow immediately after Christ’s coming.
This line of interpretation requires that 20:1-10 be identified as a recapitulation, not a continuation of the story from chapter 19. After all, most are agreed that 19:11-21 describes the Second Coming and Christ’s victory over his enemies at that time. If chapter 20 simply continues that story, then the millennium comes after the Second Coming, thereby confirming the premillennial view. But if chapter 20 is a recapitulation, going back and telling the same story in a different way, then either the POM or AM interpretation is correct.
It would be foolish to deny that the book of Revelation contains a number of recapitulations. It is not a strict, linear, chronological story laid out from beginning to end. However, there are several reasons within the context of Revelation itself to reject the claim that chapter 20 is a recapitulation, thereby rejecting the claims of POM’s and AM’s. When I began to pay close attention to the following details, I could not avoid the premillennial conclusion.
1. The purpose of Satan’s binding is to prevent him from deceiving the nations any longer. While the POM and AM interpretation has some plausibility from a theological standpoint, how does the book of Revelation itself define Satan’s deceptive work, and when are we to suppose that it is operative? I am convinced that Revelation has nothing to say about the Old Testament period but instead locates Satan’s deceptive activity in this present age. In Revelation 12-13, we are introduced to three evil characters, a dark parody of the Holy Trinity: the dragon, the beast from the sea, and the beast from the earth (later identified as the false prophet). The dragon (clearly identified as Satan) is the power that stands behind the two beasts, antichrist and the false prophet. Revelation 13:14 speaks of the work of the false prophet by saying, “And he deceives those who dwell on the earth because of the signs which it was given him to perform in the presence of the beast. . .” This is not a reference to Satanic deception of the Old Testament era that was curtailed by the coming of Christ. It is a reference to the Satanic powers of deception operative in this present age. But even nearer to the context of chapter 20, we read in 19:20: “And the beast was seized, and with him the false prophet who performed the signs in his presence, by which he deceived those who had received the mark of the beast . . .” Again, the false prophet (a puppet of Satan) is referred to specifically in regard to his deceptive work. The most natural conclusion to draw only a few verses later at 20:3 is that when Satan is bound “so that he would not deceive the nations any longer,” the deception in view must be the deception that was operative through the false prophet and the antichrist. Satan’s deceptive work ends when the two beasts are thrown into Hell (19:20-21) and he himself is bound for a thousand years (20:1-3). The story clearly seems to continue at chapter 20 rather than recapitulate. To suppose that chapter 20 is a recapitulation is to suppose that it the recapitulation tells the same story in a way that is almost diametrically opposed to the way it was told in the previous chapters. Prior to chapter 20, Satan’s deceptive power is rampant. How could this same period of time be described as a time during which he is bound so that he may longer deceive the nations? The best conclusion to draw is that Satan’s deception in this present age is brought to a temporary end at the Second Coming of Christ, which begins the millennial kingdom.
2. When you read about the Second Coming in 19:11-19 and then about the doom of the two beasts in 19:20-21, there is one glaring omission that every reader of Revelation should naturally focus on: what happened to the dragon? We are introduced to the unholy trinity, the three primary villains, in chapters 12 and 13. This trio wreaks havoc on the world in the following chapters, and then we come to the climactic battle of chapter 19, and the two beasts are sent to the lake of fire. What about the other villain, the ringleader? When I read 20:1-3 right after 19:20-21 (keeping in mind that there were no chapter divisions when John wrote this) I am naturally inclined to believe that John intends these passages to form one unit as part of the same story: first he tells us what happened to the two beasts and then what happened to the dragon. It makes more sense to me that the binding of Satan is of a piece with the doom of the two beasts than the idea that the binding of Satan represents the beginning of a new recapitulation of the same story. If this reading is on target, then Satan has to be bound at the same time the two beasts are judged, namely, at the Second Coming of Christ, not his first coming. This reading is confirmed by 20:10, which speaks of the final doom of Satan after the thousand years: “And the devil who deceived them was thrown into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are also; and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever.” Sam Storms (who is AM), has rightly pointed out that there is no verb in the Greek in reference to the beast and the false prophet. Literally, it reads, “where the beast and the false prophet.” Storms argues that the implicit verb should be “were thrown,” indicating that the casting of Satan into the lake of fire corresponds in time with the casting of the beast and the false prophet into the lake of fire. I disagree. That idea would not suggest itself to me on a natural reading of the text. Any reader who has read chapters 19-20 in order would assume that the beast and false prophet were cast into the lake of fire a thousand years earlier and that they are still there when Satan arrives after the millennium. In addition, in Greek it is much more likely that when no verb is given, then the verb “to be” is the implicit verb. Greek is much more likely to omit this verb (since it can be understood from the context) than any other verb.
3. The two resurrections are best understood as bodily resurrections. Almost everyone agrees that when it says, “the rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were completed” (v. 5), this is a reference to bodily resurrection. The same verb for “come to life” is used in the previous verse in reference to the first resurrection. It is difficult to suppose that the same verb could be used in the immediate context to refer to something different. In addition, the idea communicated here is exclusive. In other words, if the second resurrection is the only bodily resurrection, then it would include all of humanity, not just “the rest” who were not participants in the first resurrection. But John phrases it in such a way as to indicate that those who participate in the first resurrection do not participate in the second resurrection. Therefore, if the second resurrection is a bodily resurrection, the first resurrection must also be a bodily resurrection, or else the category of people who were participants in the first resurrection would never experience bodily resurrection, a manifest absurdity. I admit that it is difficult to understand how a portion of humanity that has been raised from the dead to an immortal life will share the earth with another portion that hasn’t. But then we must remember that the Jews never expected that the Messiah would experience the resurrection before everyone else. Dividing the general resurrection up into distinct phases is an explicitly Christian doctrine. If Paul can divide it between Christ the firstfruits and those who belong to Christ (1 Cor 15:20), then why should we have any trouble filling in the blank and saying that the rest of the dead will be raised at a later time? Jesus Christ appeared to his disciples over a period of 40 days after his resurrection. The new age mingled with the old as an immortal fellowshipped with those who were still under the power of death. This is how it will be during the millennium. We already have a category for it in the resurrection of Christ.
4. Those who participate in the first resurrection will reign with Christ for a thousand years (20:6). When we read of other references to Christ and his people “reigning” in the book of Revelation, it is always on the earth. See Revelation 2:26-27; 5:10; 22:5. The latter reference is to eternity, but it is on a renewed creation. My point here is not that every reference to the saints “reigning” is explicitly a reference to the millennium, but merely that nowhere do we read of a spiritual reign of the saints with Christ in Heaven. Such an idea is not too hard to fathom, but it is not a category anywhere in the book of Revelation.
5. Finally, although I have not dealt with the sources directly, I have read in the works of credible scholars that some Jewish apocalyptic writings outside of Scripture envision a messianic kingdom on earth prior to the eternal state. I do not cite these as religious authorities but rather as evidence that such an idea was not foreign to John’s context, thereby strengthening the plausibility of my interpretation of Revelation 20.
Yes, it is only one passage, but the explicit teaching of one biblical passage is enough to establish a doctrine. The POM and AM readings of Revelation 20 are simply inadequate. The premillennial reading makes the best sense of the passage within the context of the whole book.
In the next post (which will be shorter, I anticipate) I will show how the premillennial doctrine illuminates the broader teaching of Scripture in ways that neither postmillennialism nor amillennialism does.